SBI Clerk Mains Previous Year Question Paper (2019)

SBI Clerk Mains 2019

Directions (1-5): Study the following information and

answer the questions given below:

There are three rows i.e. row 1, row 2 and row 3 Such that

row 2 is in the north of row 3 and row 1 is in the north of

row 2. There are 4 persons sitting in row 1 and 8 persons

are sitting in the row 2 and 4 persons are sitting in the row

Persons sitting in the row 3 faces north. Persons sitting in

the row 1 faces south. First 4 persons sitting from west to

east in row 2 faces north and last four person sitting from

west to east in row 2 faces south.

Note: All the persons sitting in the row 1 and row 3 are

facing the persons sitting in the row 2.

E faces the one who sits second to the right of P. No one sits

on the left of E. Only one person sits between P and R. Only

two person sits between R and the one who faces F. D sits

immediate right of F. D does not sits at the end of the row.

Q sits second to the right of the one who faces D. A face the

one who sits on the immediate left of Q. G faces S but does

not sits at the end of the row. P is not the immediate

neighbour of G. Only one person sits between K and S. K

faces the one who sits third to the right of N. J and M are

immediate neighbours. J does not face D. Only two person

sits between M and L. More than two persons sits between

B and C, who does not face L. C does not face south.

1. How many persons sit between A and G?

(a) One (b) None (c) Three

(d) Two (e) None of these

2. Who among the following sits second to the right of C?

(a) F (b) D (c) G

(d) L (e) None of these

3. Four of the following five belongs to a group following

a certain pattern find the one that does not belong to

that group.

(a) ML (b) CB (c) RF

(d) ED (e) KS

4. Which among the following pairs sits at the ends of the

rows?

(a) BS (b) EQ (c) KG

(d) RM (e) None of these

5. How many persons sit on the right of L?

(a) Three (b) One (c) No one

(d) Four (e) None of these

Directions (6-10): Study the following information

carefully and answer the given questions.

A word and number arrangement machine when given an

input of words and numbers rearranges them following a

particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and

rearrangement.

Input: 42 74 TBEF WRAK 95 NLDG 31 65 KEOR QCOF

Step I: 90 42 74 TBEF NLDG 31 65 KEOR QCOF AKRW

Step II: 79 90 42 NLDG 31 65 KEOR QCOF AKRW BEFT

Step III: 60 79 90 42 NLDG 31 KEOR AKRW BEFT CFOQ

Step IV: 47 60 79 90 31 KEOR AKRW BEFT CFOQ DGLN

Step V: 26 47 60 79 90 AKRW BEFT CFOQ DGLN EKOR

StepV is the last step of the rearrangement. As per the rules

followed in the above steps, find out in each of the

following questions the appropriate steps for the given

input.

Input: IMRE 40 69 RBHI 86 PMCN 25 KDSM 57 VATW

6. How many steps would be needed to complete the

arrangement?

(a) V (b) VII (c) VI

(d) IV (e) None of these

7. Which step number would be the following output?

45 52 64 91 IMRE 25 ATVW BHIR CMNP DKMS

(a) II (b) III (c) V

(d) IV (e) None of these

8. Which of the following would be Step III?

(a) 52 64 91 IMRE 40 25 KDSM ATVW CMNP BHIR

(b) 52 64 91 IMRE 40 25 KDSM ATVW BHIR CMNP

(d) 52 91 64 IMRE 40 25 KDSM ATVW BHIR CMNP

(e) None of these

9. Which of the following element would be the 4th to the

left of the one which is 8th from the left in the step IV?

(a) 91 (b) IMRE (c) 64

(d) CMNP (e) None of these

10. In Step V, which of the following element would be on

eighth position from the right end?

(a) ATVW (b) BHIR (c) 64

(d) 52 (e) None of these

REASONING ABILITY

11. In the word ‘HOUSEWARMING’ all consonants are

written as their preceding letter and all vowels are

written as their following letters. Now all letters are

arranged in alphabetical order from left to right and all

the repeated letters are eliminated. Then, how many

such pairs of letters are there, each of which have as

many letters between them in the word (in both

forward and backward direction) as they have

between them in the English alphabetical series?

(a) One (b) Two (c) Four

(d) Three (e) More than four

12. If we form the word by 1st

, 3rd and 5th letter of

‘FORMATION’ and 3rd and 4th letter of ‘WOMEN’ then,

what will be the 3rd letter from right?

(a) R (b) A (c) M

(d) E (e) None of these

Directions (13-15): Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below.

A%B (28)- A is 42m in north of B

A$B (13)- A is 27m in south of B

A#B (24)- A is 28 in east of B

A&B (25)- A is 29m in west of B

M#L (10), N%M (11), O&N (13), P$O (31), Q#P (38), R%Q

(6)

13. N is in which direction with respect to Q?

(a) North (b) West (c) North-west

(d) East (e) South-east

14. If Z is the midpoint of the line formed between M and

R, then what is the distance between L and Z?

(a) 35.5m (b) 34m (c) 36.5m

(d) 37.5m (e) None of these

15. What is the distance between L and R?

(a) 50m (b) 51m (c) 46m

(d) 48m (e) 49m

Directions (16-20): In the following questions, the

symbols %, &, #, * and @ are used with the following

meaning as illustrated below-

‘P#Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’

‘P*Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’

‘P%Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’

‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’

‘P&Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given

statement to be true, find which of the conclusions given

below them is/are definitely true and give your answer

accordingly.

(a) If only conclusion I follows.

(b) If only conclusion II follows.

(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements: N * Q % R % O & P @ M

Conclusions: I. N % O II. O & M

17. Statements: A # B * C * D & E

Conclusions: I. A * D II. D & B

18. Statements: K % J * H % G; H * S % T

Conclusions: I. H & K II. T * J

19. Statements: B # D @ F # G * H % C

Conclusions: I. B & G II. G @ B

20. Statements: V % W & K # L; W * P @ M

Conclusions: I. M & L II. V * W

Direction (21-25): Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing

North and Some are facing South. They are of different

ages. Person whose age is even numbered doesn’t sit

immediate right of the person whose age is even

numbered.

Two persons sit between P and T and one of them sits at

extreme end. Three persons are sitting between the

persons whose age is 14 and 42. Person whose age is 15

sits 2nd to the left of T. There are as many persons sit

between T and person whose age is 15 as between the

persons whose ages are 15 and 28. Q sits immediate right

of the person whose age is 15. One person sits between S

and U and neither of them sit at extreme end. Q is older

than R. T whose age is even numbered is older than U who

faces North. Person whose age is 20 sits 3rd to the left of the

person whose age is 19.

21. How many persons are sitting between R and the

person whose age is 20?

(a) One (b) Three (c) Two

(d) Four (e) None

22. Who among the following sits immediate right of U?

(a) S

(b) Person whose age is 19

(d) Person whose age is 42

(e) None of these

23. What is the position of Q with respect to the 2nd

youngest person?

(a) 2nd to the right (b) Immediate left

(e) None of these

24. What is the age of the person who sits immediate left

of S?

(a) 14 (b) 15 (c) 28

(d) 19 (e) None of these

25. How many persons are facing North?

(a) Two (b) Three (c) One

(d) None (e) More than three

Direction (26-30): Study the following information and

answer the given questions:

In alphabetical series each consonant is assigned a

different number from 1-6 (for ex- B is coded as 1, C-

2... H-6) and again those numbers get repeated (for ex-

J-1, K-2... so on). And for the codes of Vowels is starts

from the numeric code of Z i.e. if the code of Z is 2 then the

code of vowel A is 2 and code of E is 3 and so on till U which

is coded as 6.

Note: The code of vowels lies in the range of 1 to 7.

Besides the above information, following operations are to

be applied for coding the words given in the questions

below.

If the two immediate digits are same (in the code) then the

digit of the letter having higher place value in the English

alphabet will be changed to ‘X’ i.e. If the code of a word is

‘225’ hence the code will be changed to ‘X25’ and if the two

immediate digits (in the code) are in the form such that the

preceding digit is one more than its succeeding digit then

the higher digit will be changed to ‘⧫’ i.e. If the code of a

word is ‘435’ hence the code will be changed to ‘35’.

26. If the code for the word ‘SE_ _ED’ is coded as

‘3T3X3’ then what letters will come in the fill in the

blanks to make it a meaningful word?

(a) RV (b) AL (c) EM

(d) AD (e) Either (b) or (d)

27. Which of the following word will be coded as

‘34623’?

I. SMOKED II. STAKED III. STOKED

(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Either II or III

(d) Either I or III (e) All of the three

28. Which of the following combination of the words and

codes is/are true?

(a) SLOWLY - X36X2

(b) BELIEVE- 1344

(d) ADVERB- 3X41

(e) All are true

29. If the code for the words ‘BEAST MODE ’ is coded

as ‘13X4 X6X2 4634’ in the given coded pattern, then

what will be the missing word?

(a) CLUB (b) WORK (c) STUN

(d) WORN (e) Either (b) and (d)

30. What is the code for ‘NECKLACE’?

(a) 42X1353 (b) 42XX23 (c) 421X353

(d) 42X1335 (e) None of these

Direction (31): Study the following information carefully

and answer the questions given below:

Eight persons are sitting in a row and all are facing North.

Only two persons sit to the right of A. Two persons sit

between A and B. Three persons sit between C and G. E and

G are immediate neighbors of B. D sits immediate left of E.

F sits 2nd to the right of H.

31. How many persons are sitting right of G?

(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four

(d) Five (e) None of these

32. Rooftop solar power growth has demonstrated an

overall positive trend, But this will need to be scaled

up massively to achieve the national target.

Assumption:

(I) With ongoing improvements to solar cell

efficiency and battery technology, rooftops will

only get more attractive in the future.

(II) Major solar projects that connect to the grid often

face the challenge of land acquisition and

transmission connectivity.

(III) A survey helps determine usable rooftops,

separating them from green spaces, and analyses

the quality of the solar resource.

(a) Only II follows

(b) Both II and III follows

(d) Only I follows

(e) Both I and II follows

33. To provide proper education, we need to improve our

education system. To improve education system, we

need good teachers. To provide good teachers, we

again need good education. In India there are some

good institutes too but most of the students opt for a

job rather than trying the career in teaching field

which requires post-graduation as minimum

eligibility criteria because they do not get a good

salary there.

Course of Action-

(I) The Salary of the teachers should be hiked to

encourage them for opting teaching.

(II) The minimum eligibility criterion to be a teacher

should be graduate rather than post-graduation

and PhD to become a teacher as students can get

a job even after graduation.

(a) Only II follows (b) Only I follows

(e) Both I and II follows

Direction (34-38): Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six persons are working in a company. Their designations

are Chief Executive Officer (CEO), Chief Managing Director

(CMD), Managing Director (MD), General Manager (GM),

Chief Finance Officer (CFO), Finance Officer (FO). Sequence

of the posts are as above i.e. the post of Chief Executive

Officer (CEO) is higher than Chief Managing Director

(CMD), the post of Chief Managing Director (CMD) is higher

than Managing Director (MD) and so on the post of Chief

Finance Officer (CFO) is higher than Finance Officer (FO).

They have different years of experiences. They get

different annual salaries.

Only two person’s designation is lower than the

designation of the person whose annual salary is 7 lakhs.

There are as many posts above the post of the person

whose annual salary is 14 lakhs as below the post of the

person who have 7-year experience. Annual salary of CEO

is 6 lakhs. There are three posts in between the post of the

persons whose experience are 4 years and 5 years. Person

whose annual salary is 14 lakhs have just higher post than

the post of the person who have 6 years’ experience and

just lower post than the post of the person who have 8

years’ experience. Two posts are between the posts of the

person who have 3 years and 8 years’ experience. Person

whose annual salary is 5 lakhs have higher post than the

person whose annual salary is 9 lakhs and lower post than

the person whose annual salary is 4 lakhs. Person whose

salary is 9 lakhs doesn’t have 4 years’ experience.

34. Who among the following has lowest salary?

(a) Person who is CMD

(b) Person who have 6 years’ experience

(d) Person who have lowest experience

(e) None of these

35. Person who is GM have how many years’ experience?

(a) 3 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years

(d) 8 years (e) None of these

36. How many persons are senior than the person whose

annual salary is 14 lakhs?

(a) None (b) One (c) Two

(d) Three (e) More than three

37. Which of the following is the annual salary of the

person who is CFO?

(a) 4 lakhs (b) 5 lakhs (c) 7 lakhs

(d) 9 lakhs (e) None of these

38. Which of the following pair of combination is/are

true?

(a) CMD - 4 lakhs (b) GM – 7 years (c) MD – 6 lakhs

(d) CFO – 5 lakhs (e) None is true

Direction (39-40): There are some criteria which will be

considered during appraisal of employee-Statement by

manager of a company.

 Punctuality and sincerity are one of the key points

which will surely reviewed.

 Hard work and dedication towards work will be

applauded.

 Just to quantify an amount in the salary package of

employee with no reason will not be entertained.

39. Which of the following can be inferred from the above

statement?

I. Punching machine of office will be evaluated by

HR.

II. There will be minimum 10% increment for

deserving employee based on their performance.

III. Some of employees of company have done a

tremendous job with complete determination and

enthusiasm.

(a) Only I (b) Both II and III (c) Both I and III

(d) Only III (e) None of these

40. Which of the following undermines the statement

given by Manager?

I. Increment of 15% has been done for all the

employees whose 1 year is completed.

II. Performance chart has been prepared by leaders

of different department based on their

proficiency.

III. Relaxation time for late coming of 240 minutes in

a year i.e. of 10 minutes twice in a month is given

to all employees.

(a) Only II (b) Both II and III (c) Both I and III

(d) Only I (e) None of these

Directions (41-45): Study the following information and

answer the questions given below:

There are nine boxes which are kept one above the other

such that the box which is placed at the bottom most

position is numbered 1 and so on till the box which is

placed at the top position is numbered 9.

All the boxes contain different number of pens in it.

Note: The number of pens in a box is equal to the multiple

of the place number of the box which is kept immediately

above it i.e. The number of pens in the box which is kept at

the bottom is equal to the multiple of is 2, 4, 6... and so on

and the number of pens in the box which is placed at the

top (9th position) is 10, 20, 30 and so on.

Only two boxes are kept between the box having 42 pens

and box A. Box I is kept at the odd number position but

immediately below box F. There is only one box is kept

between box E and box having 25 pens. Box D is kept

immediately above the box containing 63 pens. Box E does

not contain 63 pens. The number of pens in Box G is equal

to the difference between the number of pens in box D and

box I. Box B is kept above the box having 8 pens. Box G

contains 21 less pens than box A contains. Only three boxes

are kept between box D and the box containing 12 pens.

Only two boxes are kept between box H and the box having

12 pens. More than three boxes are kept between box C and

box H. The box having pens which is a perfect square of 3

is kept immediately above box C. The number of pens in

box D is equal to the sum of the number of pens in box H

and the box which is placed at 2nd position.

41. Which among the following box contains 42 pens?

(a) Box D (b) Box H (c) Box B

(d) Box E (e) Box I

42. How many boxes are kept above box F?

(a) Three (b) Two (c) Four

(d) Five (e) None of these

43. Number of boxes between I and the box having 63

pens is same between the box B and the box?

(a) Box G (b) 42 pens (c) 81 pens

(d) Box C (e) Both (a) and (c)

44. Box F contains how many pens?

(a) 25 (b) 42 (c) 63

(d) 81 (e) None of these

45. Total number of pens in the boxes A, G and I is?

(a) 153 (b) 149 (c) 155

(d) 151 (e) None of these

46. Begusarai, a district in Bihar which has seen the phase

of kidnapping, extortion, murder to “The Industrial

city of Bihar”. Nowadays there are 4 major industries

in Begusarai. Growth rate of Begusarai is top amongst

all districts of Bihar and 5th among all districts of India

in year 2017.

Which of the following can be inferred from the

above statement?

I. Opportunities of the employment has been

increased in Begusarai.

II. There is no case of murder, kidnapping and

extortion in 2017.

III. People of Begusarai are hardworking and keen to

go forward.

IV. Top industrialists of India are desirous to have

their industry in Begusarai.

(a) Only II (b) Only I and III (c) Only I

(d) Only III and IV (e) None of these

47. Statement: Start to think of travelling by train for a

holiday. A train journey can give one a better view of

places on the way which an air journey cannot give.

You can walk around whenever you want, meet other

travelers and locals, relax and watch the landscape go

peacefully by. Train travel is both a beautiful and

affordable way to see the country, and no trip is more

scenic than the trip by trains.

Conclusions:

I. While going for a holiday, people want to enjoy

the view of the places on the way.

II. People should not travel by air when they are

going for a holiday.

Which of the following can be concluded from the

given statement?

(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows

(e) Either I or II follows

Directions: (48-50): Study the following information

carefully and answer the questions which follow–

‘T @ U’ means ‘T is parent of U (either mother or father)’

‘T # U’ means ‘T is sister of U’

‘T $ U’ means ‘U is grandchild of T’

‘T % U’ means ‘T is brother of U’

‘T & U’ means ‘T is the son-in-law of U’

‘T * U’ means ‘T is the wife of U’

‘T © U’ means ‘U is the mother of T’

There are some members in a family having three

generation. The relation between the different members of

the family are defined as follows.

U@G#J

C&I

F%H*C

B@H

G*F%H©I

J©A$D

B$E

48. If D is the only child of F, then how is D related to U?

(a) Son (b) Grandson

(e) Can’t be determined

49. If A has only one son, then how is J related to F?

(a) Son (b) Brother-in-law

50. If D has no sibling and B has no granddaughter, then

how is E related to C?

(a) Daughter (b) Wife (c) Nephew

(d) Son (e) Cannot be determined

2 days

Directions (51-56): Study the table given below and answer the following questions. Some data is missing in the table.

Table shows data regarding Rs.20 notes received by 5 different banks during demonetization.

Banks

Total no. of

notes received

by bank

% of notes on which

100% return is given

Ratio of notes on which (50%

return : 80% return) is given

Total value of Rs.20 notes

received by bank (in Rs.)

PNB 15,000 ------- 5 : 7 -------

SBI ------- 80% ------- 9,00,000

Axis

Bank 10,000 ------- 1 : 4 -------

BOI ------- 75% 3 : 5 -------

BOB 24,000 ------- ------- 4,80,000

Note: 1. ‘Return’ is the amount (face value of note) of notes returned by bank to its customers.

2. Each bank has given minimum of 50% return on all notes received by it.

51. If difference of notes on which 50% return is given and

on which 80% return is given of PNB is 1000, then find

number of notes on which 100% return is given by

PNB are what percent of total notes received by BOB?

(a) 12.5% (b) 37.5% (c) 50%

(d) 25% (e) 62.5%

52. If total number of notes on which BOI gave 100%

return and 50% return are 13500, then find total

amount received by BOIis how much more or less than

total amount received by Axis bank?

(a) Rs.1,20,000 (b) Rs.1,00,000 (c) Rs.1,50,000

(d) Rs.1,60,000 (e) Rs.1,80,000

53. If ratio of notes on which (50% return : 80% return) is

given by BOB is same as ratio of notes on which (50%

return : 80% return)is given by Axis bank and number

of notes on which BOB gave 100% return are 20% less

than total notes received by PNB, then find ratio of

notes on which BOB gave 80% return to that of on

which it gave 100% return.

(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 3 (c) 4 : 5

(d) 5 : 7 (e) None of the above.

54. If total number of notes received by BOI is 40% less

than total number of notes received by SBI, then find

average number of Rs.20 notes received by these 5

banks.

(a) 24,700 (b) 25,000 (c) 25,400

(d) 24,200 (e) Cannot be determined.

55. If percentage of notes on which 100% return is given

by PNB is 50%, then find the amount earned by PNB in

this whole transaction.

(a) Rs.47,750 (b) Rs.44,500 (c) Rs.41,500

(d) Rs.45,750 (e) Rs.48,750

56. If difference of number of notes on which PNB gave

50% return and 80% return is 1500 and number of

notes on which Axis bank gave 80% return are 1750

less than number of notes on which PNB gave 50%

return, then find total number of notes on which PNB

and Axis Bank gave 100% return together.

(a) 12000 (b) 13000 (c) 12500

(d) 14000 (e) 13500

57. A spend 30% of his monthly salary on house rent, 40%

of the remaining salary on clothing and he distributes

his remaining monthly salary among his two

daughters and a son in the ratio 5 : 5 : 4. If difference

of A’s monthly expenditure on Clothing and monthly

amount given by A to his son is Rs.24000, then find A’s

annual expenditure on house rent.

(a) Rs.500000 (b) Rs.540000 (c) Rs.550000

(d) Rs.560000 (e) Rs.600000

58. A can complete a piece of work in 33 days and C is

three times more efficient than A. Ratio of efficiency of

B to that of C is 3 : 2. If all three starts working

together, then find in how many days the work will be

completed?

(a) 1 (b) 5 days (c) 3 days

(d) 4 days (e) 4

days

59. A, B & C entered into a partnership business. Amount

invested by B is 3 times of amount invested by A and

ratio of amount invested by C to that of B is 1 : 2. After

11 months, all 3 withdrew Rs.Y. If ratio of C’s profit

share to total profit at the end of the year is 35 : 129,

then find profit sharing ratio of A to that of B at the end

of the year.

(a) 19 ∶ 75 (b) 41 ∶ 53 (c) 67 : 27

(d) 23 : 71 (e) 31 ∶ 63

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

(a) 1 2 2

(d) (e)

60. A vessel contains milk and water in the ratio 3 : 1.

When 80l mixture is taken out and completely

replaced by milk, then milk becomes 700% of the

water in the vessel. Find original quantity of the vessel.

(a) 240 lit (b) 280 lit (c) 320 lit

(d) 200 lit (e) 160 lit

Directions (61-65): Study the pie chart and table given

below and answer the following questions.

Pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total

employees of a company – X in 4 different departments (A,

B, C & D) and table shows the number of male employees

in these departments.

Departments Male employees

A 240

B 225

C 350

D 160

61. If 38% of the female employees in C are newly

recruited and ratio of male employees to female

employees who are newly recruited in C is 3 : 5, then

find total number of old employees in C is what

percent of total employees in C?

83 % (b) 74 % (c) 65 %

64. If male employees in company – K are 425 more than

female employees in B in company – X, then find

average number of female employees in A, C & D in

company - X are how much less than male employees

in company – K?

(a) 400 (b) 450 (c) 360

(d) 480 (e) 520

65. If ratio of employees who are in (18-40) age group to

employees who are in (40+) age group in A, B, C & D in

company – X is 13 : 12, 13 : 37, 4 : 1 & 33 : 7

respectively, then find ratio of total no. of employees

of (18 – 40) age group to total no. of employees of

(40+) age group employees in company – X.

(a) 2 : 1 (b) 9 : 5 (c) 5 : 4

(d) 3 : 2 (e) None of the above.

Directions (66-72): Find the wrong number in the

following number series.

66. 8, 10, 20, 70, 320, 1570, 7830

(a) 7830 (b) 10 (c) 8

(d) 320 (e) 1570

67. 18, 20 , 43, 133, 537, 2691, 16163

(a) 43 (b) 16163 (c) 133

(d) 537 (e) 2691

68. 124, 140, 108, 156, 92, 172, 78

(d)

702

3 3

% (e) 78 1 %

62. If ratio of male employees to female employees in

company – Y is 4 : 3 and male employees in company

– Y are 300% more than male employees in C of

company – X, then find total employees in company –

Y are how much more or less than that of in company

– X?

(a) 450 (b) 800 (c) 560

(d) 630 (e) 750

63. If 16% female employees of B left B and joined D, then

find the percentage change in no. of female employees

in D after female employees of B joined D.

73. Ratio of present age of A to that of B is 2 : 5, ratio of

present age of B to that of C is 25 : 18 and ratio of

present age of C to that of D is 12 : 13. If D is 11 years

younger than B, then find present age of A.

(a) 24 years (b) 20 years (c) 28 years

(d) 30 years (e) 18 years

74. Perimeter of a right angled triangle is 60m and length

of hypotenuse of right angled triangle is 25m. If base

of the right angled triangle is the smallest side, then

(a) 252

% (b) 342

% (c)18 1 %

find length of smallest side.

(a) 10m (b) 18m (c) 21m 2 1

30 % 35 % (d) 25m (e) 15m

3 3

Total employees = 2000

20%

25%

30%

25%

(a) 108 (b) 124 (c) 78

(d) 92 (e) 140

69. 260, 380, 510, 618, 759, 856, 1008

(a) 759 (b) 1008 (c) 260

(d) 510 (e) 618

70. 267, 343, 610, 953, 1563, 2515, 4079

(a) 4079 (b) 953 (c) 343

(d) 267 (e) 2515

71. 36, 80, 166, 340, 690, 1392, 2798

(a) 690 (b) 36 (c) 340

(d) 1392 (e) 80

72. 30, 100, 230, 490, 1010, 2050, 4130

(a) 30 (b) 4130 (c) 1010

(d) 490 (e) 2050

75. Shopkeeper sells two articles – M & N.He marks article

– M 20% above its cost price and he gave 5% discount

on it. Cost price of article – N is 20% more than cost

price of article – M. If shopkeeper sold article – M at

Rs.285 and article – N at 15% profit, then find selling

price of article – N.

(a) Rs.345 (b) Rs.230 (c) Rs.460

(d) Rs.414 (e) Rs.322

Directions (76-80): The following questions are

accompanied by two statements (I) and (II). You have to

determine which statements(s) is/are

sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

(a) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the

question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to

answer the question.

(b) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the

question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to

answer the question.

answer the question, but neither of the statements

alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(d) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is

sufficient to answer the question.

(e) Statements (I) and (II) taken together are not

sufficient to answer the question.

76. Let t be total number of balls in a bag. Balls are of 3

colors - black, white and red. Find t.

(I) when one ball is drawn then Probability of getting

a black ball is 1 , a red ball is 1 & a white ball is 2.

6 6 3

(II) If one white ball is lost and a ball is drawn, then

probability of not getting a white ball is 8 .

77. Shivam and Deepak invested in a partnership business

in the ratio of 4 : 5. Find the profit share of Shivam.

(I) Shivam invested Rs.12000 and period of

investment of Shivam and Deepak is 10 months

and 4 months respectively.

(II) Ratio of period of investment of Shivam and

Deepak is 5 : 2 and Deepak’s profit share is

Rs.12000 less than Shivam’s profit share.

78. Calculate the marked price of item?

(I) Shopkeeper marked the article 80% above its cost

price and shopkeeper earned Rs.100 profit on the

article.

(II) Ratio of marked price and discount allowed on the

article is 3 : 1.

79. Calculate the rate of interest.

(I) Pankaj earned Rs.4500 as interest, when he

invested Rs.6000.

(II) Pankaj invested equal amount at SI and at CI. After

2 years, CI received by Pankaj is Rs.90 more than

the SI received by Pankaj.

80. Find the volume of cylinder.

(I) Curved surface area of cylinder is 1760 cm2 and

total surface area of cylinder is 70% more than its

curved surface area.

(II) Volume of cylinder is twice of that of cone. Radius

of cylinder and cone is equal and ratio of height of

cylinder to that of cone is 2 : 3. Height of cone is

30 cm.

Directions (81-85): In the following questions, two

quantities (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the

quantities and mark the appropriate answer.

81. Quantity I: In how many ways a committee of 4

members with at least 2 women can be

formed from 8 men and 4 women?

Quantity II: How many 3-digit numbers which are

divisible by 3 can be formed from

0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9, such that 3-digit

number always ends with an even

number?

(a) Quantity I < Quantity II

(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation.

82. Quantity I: A man invested Rs.5900 for 3 years in a

scheme offering R% p.a. at SI and

received Rs.3186 as interest after 3

years. If the man invested Rs.7900 at

(R+5)% p.a. at SI for 3 years, then find

interest received by man (in Rs.).

Quantity II: A man invested Rs.X at 13% p.a. at CI for

2 years and interest received by him

after 2 years is Rs.2325.96. Find X (in

Rs.).

(a) Quantity I < Quantity II

(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation.

83. Quantity I: Ratio of CP to MP of an article is 19 : 30.

Shopkeeper allowed 24% discount and

earned 20% profit on selling the article.

If SP of the article is Rs.912, then find

difference between amount of profit

earned and amount of discount allowed

(in Rs.).

Quantity II: Shopkeeper marked an article 70%

above its cost price and he allowed 40%

discount on it. If shopkeeper sold the

article at Rs.183.6, then find sum of

amount of profit earned and amount of

discount allowed(in Rs.).

(a) Quantity I < Quantity II

(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation.

84. Quantity I: A boat can cover distance of 480 km

each in downstream and in upstream in

total 11 hours. If ratio of speed of boat

in still water to that of stream is 11 : 1,

then find speed of boat in still water (in

km/hr.).

Quantity II: A boat can cover a distance of 350 km

in downstream in 3.5 hours and can

cover a distance of 380 km in upstream

in 5 hours. Find speed of boat in still

water (in km/hr.).

(a) Quantity I < Quantity II

(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation.

85. Quantity I: B’s present age is 60% more than A’s

present age and ratio of present age of

B to that of C is 5 : 2. D is 8 years

younger than B and D’s present age is

twice of that of C. Find average of

present age of A, B, C & D (in years).

Quantity II: Present age of R is equal to average of

present age of P & Q. 4 years hence, age

of P is twice of age of Q at that time. If R

is 15 years younger than P, then find

age of younger person among P, Q & R.

(a) Quantity I < Quantity II

(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II

(d) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II

(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation.

Directions (86-91): Study the bar chart given below and answer the following questions.

Bar chart shows the percentage of applicants who applied for renewal of passports on 5 different passport centers (A, B,

C, D & E) and percentage of female applicants who applied for renewal of passports out of total applicants who applied for

renewal of passports.

Note: Total number of applicants on a particular center = Number of applicants for new passport on that center + Number

of applicants for renewal of passport on that center.

86. If total number of applicants in E are 70% of total

number of applicants in A and ratio of male to female

applicants who applied for new passports in A & E is

7 : 3 & 2 : 1 respectively, then find ratio of total female

applicants in A to total female applicants in E.

(a) 85 : 91 (b) 90 : 91 (c) 90 : 93

(d) 88 : 91 (e) None of the above.

87. If difference between male and female who applied for

new passports from C is 800 and ratio of male to

female who applied for new passports from C is 2 : 3,

then find total female who applied for passports from

C is what percent of total male who applied for

passports from C?

88. If difference between male and female who applied for

renewal of passports from A is 2400, then find number

of applicants who applied for new passport from A.

(a) 9000 (b) 6000 (c) 7000

(d) 10000 (e) 8000

89. If total applicants from B are 5000 less than total

applicants from E and male applicants who applied for

renewal of passports from B is 3600, then find total

number of applicants who applied for new passports

from B & E together

(a) 18500 (b) 21500 (c) 15500

(a)

(d)

120 2 % (b) 1222

92 9

(e) 2

% (c) 125 2 %

9 (d) 19500 (e) 24500

116 %

130 %

% of appAlicants whoBapplied for r

Cenewal of pDassports E

% of female applicants who applied for renewal of passports

in %

90. If total applicants from C & E together are 30000 and

female applicants who applied for renewal of

passports from C are 800 more than that of from E,

then find average number of applicants who applied

for new passports from C & E.

(a) 9000 (b) 8000 (c) 6500

(d) 4000 (e) 11500

91. If ratio of applicants who applied for new passports

from A to that of C is 2 : 3, then find total candidates

who applied from C is what percent more than total

candidates who applied from A?

(a) 80% (b) 50% (c) 90%

(d) 40% (e) 20%

92. When 2 cards are drawn randomly from a pack of

cards, then find the probability of getting at most 1 ace

card.

Directions (96-100): Study the passage given below and

answer the following questions.

There are 3 cities – Delhi, Dhaka and Bangkok. Total

distance between Delhi – Dhaka, Dhaka – Bangkok and

Delhi – Bangkok is 19800 km. Distance between Dhaka –

Bangkok is 80% of the distance between Delhi – Bangkok

and ratio of distance between Delhi – Dhaka to distance

between Bangkok – Dhaka is 27 : 32.

Fares of 3 different flight operators (A, B & C) on these 3

routes (Delhi – Dhaka, Dhaka – Bangkok and Delhi –

Bangkok) are –

Delhi – Dhaka: Fare of C is 25% more than that of B and

fare of A is Rs.2700 less than that of B. Ratio of fare of A to

that of C is 3 : 5.

Delhi – Bangkok: Average fare of A & B is Rs.20000 and

fare of C is Rs.8000 more than average fare of A & B.

Average fare of B & C is Rs.26000.

Dhaka – Bangkok: Fare of B is Rs.16000 and ratio of fare

(a) 209

221

(d) 16

(b) 10

(e) 220

221

of A to that of B to that of C is 6 : 5 : 8.

96. If Veer wants to travel from Delhi – Dhaka and then

Dhaka – Bangkok without changing flight operator,

then which flight operator would be the cheapest

93. Ayush invested Rs.75000 in a scheme offering R% p.a.

SI for 5 years and Rs.50000 in another scheme offering

12%p.a. CI compounding annually for 2 years. If

difference in 2nd year CI and 2nd year SI is Rs.2220,

then find value of R%.

(a) 4% (b) 8% (c) 6%

(d) 12% (e) 14%

94. Train – Y crosses Train – X while running in same

direction in 120 seconds and Train – Y crosses Train –

X in 40 seconds while running in opposite direction. If

Train – X is running at 120 km/hr, then find speed of

Train – Y (in km/hr).

(a) 150 (b) 180 (c) 200

(d) 160 (e) None of the above.

95. A two digit number increased by 27 when its digits are

reversed and square of digit at units place is 33 more

than the square of the digit at tens place of the original

number respectively. Find the original number.

(a) 69 (b) 58 (c) 25

(d) 14 (e) None of the above.

option among A, B & C for Veer.

(a) A (b) B (c) C

(d) Either A or B (e) Either A or C

97. If Deepak is travelling from Dhaka – Bangkok and

Bangkok – Delhi from C, then find the amount paid by

Deepak per km for the entire trip.

(a) Rs. 3.11/km (b) Rs. 3.98/km (c) Rs. 3.42/km

(d) Rs. 3.62/km (e) Rs. 3.01/km

98. For which of the following trip, the fare will be

maximum?

(a) A, Delhi – Bangkok

(b) C, Delhi – Dhaka

(d) A, Dhaka – Bangkok

(e) B, Delhi - Dhaka

99. On Dhaka – Bangkok route, which flight operator is

charging lowest fare per km?

(a) A (b) B (c) C

(d) Either B or C (e) Cannot be determined.

100. Find average fare of A, B & C on Delhi – Dhaka route.

(a) Rs.12000 (b) Rs.11500 (c) Rs.10400

(d) Rs.11200 (e) Rs.10800

Directions (101-105): Read the passage carefully and

answer the questions based on the passage.

Enjoyed byhumans since prehistoric times, music has been

variously described as the food of love, a shorthand for

emotion, and the universal language of humankind. For

some, those seemingly rare individuals who do not express

an enthusiasm for music are viewed with deep suspicion,

like those who don’t eat chocolate, who are unmoved by

Shakespearean drama, or who fail to express delight over

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

an Ashes victory. Yet recently the assumption that the

enjoyment of music is a near-universal human trait has

been questioned, with evidence that some people simply

don’t derive pleasure from music, and that this does not

reflect or result from a general lack of pleasure in life’s

activities. It is evident that these systems evolved to

process stimuli of biological significance: the ability to

discriminate tones in human speech provides information

about the gender, size and emotional state of the speaker,

and (1) in some languages. Music is assumed

to be a fortuitous by-product of this evolutionary

development, and is more fully processed in the brain’s

right hemisphere, which is more associated with the

representation of emotions than the left hemisphere.

It has been theorised that aesthetic responses to music

may derive from the similarity of musical tones to tonal

characteristics of human speech associated with different

emotional states. If so, it would be hypothesised that the

pleasure one finds in music would be related to skills in and

enjoyment of social intercourse. Conversely, a lack of

musical appreciation would predict deficiencies in social

engagement: in Shakespeare’s words, for the man that hath

no music in himself, “the motions of his spirit are dull as

night and his affections dark as Erebus: Let no such man be

trusted”. The inability to enjoy music has been investigated

by a team of Spanish researchers, who started with the

assumption that the condition may result from deficits in

music perception – termed amusia – or a more general

inability to derive pleasure from everyday activities –

formally labelled anhedonia.

In Current Biology the research team reported on their

investigation of the hypothesis that those who do not enjoy

music may exhibit broader abnormalities of the systems of

the brain involved in reward, motivation and arousal. They

examined three groups of participants with high, average

and low pleasure ratings in response to music. They

undertook a monetary incentive delay task, which required

them to respond quickly to targets in order to earn or avoid

losing real money. The results confirmed that some

otherwise healthy and happy people with normal music

perception report that they do not enjoy music and show

no autonomic responses to its presentation. This occurs in

the presence of a normal behavioural and physiological

response to monetary rewards, which demonstrates that a

lack of enjoyment of music is not associated with general

dysfunction in the brain’s reward network. This

demonstration of the existence of a domain-specific

anhedonia – in this case, specific musical anhedonia –

suggests that there are individual differences in access to

the brain’s reward system.

101. How has the author biologically connected music with

emotions?

(a) general improper functioning of brain to lead to

imbalance of emotions thus resulting in music

anhedonia

(b) both of them are processes within the right

hemisphere of the brain

the brain affects emotions thus reducing joy

arising from music

(d) both (a) and (b)

(e) all are correct

102. Which of the following statement is not correct in

context of the study conducted in relation to music

anhedonia?

(a) there were certain complete normal and

healthful participants who didn’t enjoy music

(b) they deduced that even within a usual brain

functioning and response mechanism, it was

possible not to enjoy music

the study they conducted

(d) lack of ability to enjoy could be clearly related to

malfunctioned responses towards rewards

(e) not feeling the pleasure of music might be related

with larger malfunctioning within the brain

103. Which of the following statement can be inferred from

the passage given above?

(i) Specific musical anhedonics show reduced

functional connectivity between cortical regions

associated with auditory processing.

(ii) While most people enjoy music and find it

rewarding, there is substantial individual

variability in the experience and degree of

music‐induced reward.

(iii) While music may be the universal language, it

doesn’t speak to everyone.

(a) only (iii)

(b) only (i) and (ii)

(d) all of the above

(e) none of these

104. What would be the presumption drawn in case there

exists a connection between response to music and

characteristics of human speech?

(a) lack of brain connectivity with fluency of speech

might result to anhedonia

(b) music would fail to acquire reward value if a

person isn’t able to identify emotions through

speech

pleasure in music

(d) subjects could be insensible to music if they lack

the ability to speak

(e) none of these

105. Which of the following phrases could fit in the blank

(1), to make the statement grammatically correct and

contextually meaningful?

(a) sensitivity based on their responses

(b) measuring their level of sensitivity

(d) differentiates meaning of utterances

(e) none of these

Directions (106-110): In each of the given questions, a pair

of words has been given which is then followed by three

statements. Find the statements where both the words

grammatically and contextually fit in the given statements.

106. Equip: Arm

(a) A vassal needed economic resources

to the cavalry he was bound to

contribute to his lord to fight his frequent wars.

(b) Readers may not even notice some of the more

elements like word balloons that get

cut off by the panel borders.

more force and accuracy than could be

accomplished by simply hurling it with the

alone

(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Both A & B

(d) Both B & C (e) All of the above

107. Ponder: Study

(a) Take a few minutes and the question

before you jump to a conclusion.

(b) Conjoint repression of civil and religious liberty

had made thoughtful men matters of

church polity.

structure of a warm front in northeast Europe.

(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Both B & C

(d) Both A & B (e) None of these

108. Anomaly: Departure

(a) Since my son has a history of failing classes, his

good grades are a welcome .

company up to face a massive damages payment

over its privacy practices.

(b) A majority of workers with university degrees

say they won't enrol in new training unless they

get for prior training and experience.

received from both local and national

officials

(a) All A, B & C (b) Both A & B (c) Both B & C

(d) Only C (e) None of these

110. Pinnacle: Height

(a) He's about the same and weight but

he's younger.

(b) Edward reached the of the political

world when he was elected prime minister of his

country

ahead of us

(a) Both A & C (b) Both B & C (c) Both A & B

(d) All A, B, C (e) Only B

Directions (111-115): In each of the given questions, a

word has been highlighted in the statement. In the options

given below, a pair of words has been given. Find the pair of

the word where the first word is the synonym of the

highlighted word whereas the second word is the antonym

of the given word.

111. Valour and sacrifice of the Armed Forces will be

honoured at this year's India Day parade, the largest

parade outside India to mark the country's

independence that brings together thousands of

members of the diaspora for one of the biggest cultural

extravaganzas in the US.

(a) timidity: wimpiness (b) audacity: fortitude

(e) none of these

112. Veteran attorneys interviewed by the Guardian said

Epstein’s death would not impede federal

prosecutors from pursuing conspiracy cases against

(b) It was quite an/a when the others.

temperature reached 101 degrees in December

in Michigan.

in the existing arrangements for

patients suffering from pulmonary tuberculosis.

(a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Only C

(d) Both A & C (e) All (A), (B), (C)

109. Accolade: Recognition

(a) Facebook has lost a federal appeal in a lawsuit

(a) extol: substitute (b) facilitate: hinder

(e) restrain: expedite

113. The U.S. appreciates Turkey and Russia's efforts to

reach a cease-fire in Idlib's de-escalation zone and

underlined that the attacks targeting civilians must

stop

(a) asinine: recuperate (b) rectify: avenge

over facial data, setting the (e) exaggerate: entail

114. During the outing, Isha was seen donning a simple yet

elegant white kurta and palazzo set with floral print

and gold gotta patti work from the house of

Sabyasachi.

(a) diminutive: prolific (b) graceful: gauche

(e) none of these

115. Farmers abhor selling corn at harvest, Utterback

acknowledges. “But getting rid of 2019 corn sooner

than later would be prudent — don’t hold onto it until

next summer,” he says.

(a) commend: derelish (b) applaud: acclaim

(e) disdain: despise

Directions (116-120): Given below are five statements,

followed by a set of questions. Answer each of the question

based on the given statements.

(a) Whatever one may (A)/ say of her, no one (B)/ dare

call in question (C)/ her honesty of purpose. (D)/ No

error (E)

(b) When Mrs. Paul heard his knock,(A)/ she went to the

door and opened it, (B)/but she did not recognize him

at first (C)/because she was not wearing her

glasses.(D)/ No error (E)

(A)/of Adolf Hitler, Germany signed the instrument of

surrender on May 7, 1945, (B)/in Reims in eastern

France. The document stipulated (C)/ that hostilities

had to cease tomorrow. (D)/ No Error (E)

(d) Loui and Satpute will use a similar (A)/physiological

test, in addition to (B)/issuing two kinds of surveys, to

triple-check that their (C)/ participants truly have

musical anhedonia. (D)/ No Error (E)

(e) We would have enjoyed the (A)/ journey more if the

old lady in (B)/the adjacent compartment (C)/ would

not have snorted all the time. (D)/ No Error (E)

116. Which of the following parts in statement (A) has

error?

(a) C (b) B (c) D

(d) A (e) No Error

117. Which of the following parts in statement (B) has

error?

(a) B (b) C (c) D

(d) A (e) No Error

118. Which of the following parts in statement (C) has

error?

(a) C (b) A (c) B

(d) D (e) No Error

119. Which of the following parts in statement (D) has

error?

(a) A (b) C (c) D

(d) B (e) No Error

120. Which of the following parts in statement (E) has

error?

(a) B (b) D (c) A

(d) C (e) No Error

Directions (121-125): Read the following passage and

answer the following questions. Some words are

highlighted to help you answer some of the questions.

The last decade has seen many changes and considerable

progress in the Indian car industry. The country became the

fourth largest market for passenger cars. Domestic sales

grew at 8 percent annually, reaching 3.4 million cars in

2018-19. Considering the country’s potential and needs,

this was not satisfactory. In the previous decade, growth

was at 15 percent. Car penetration is only 28 per thousand,

far lower than most Southeast Asian countries. The entry of

global players into the Indian market and cars being of

international standards led to exports increasing to 680,000

vehicles in 2018-19. Safety and emission standards during

2019-20 are similar to Europe, with all vehicles converting

to Bharat VI by the end of March 2020. This has meant an

increase in the cost of vehicles and .

The Indian consumer was used to seeing car models

remaining unchanged for long periods. Intense competition

in the market saw all manufacturers launching or upgrading

existing models in fairly short intervals. The industry

became more like that of a developed country. Competition

also led to better technology benefiting the consumer. The

average fuel efficiency of cars increased from about 16 km

per litre to 19.2 km per litre. This resulted not only in

reducing fuel consumption but also lowered CO2 emissions.

The sale of automatic transmission cars, which was

negligible at the start of the decade, increased to 12 percent,

largely because of the introduction of the lower cost manual

automatic transmission, which gave the benefit of not

increasing fuel consumption. Car sales extended beyond

bigger cities to rural areas and small towns, a positive sign

for the future of this industry. Maruti Suzuki sales in ‘rural

areas’ increased from about 5 percent to 40 percent.

An important driver of sales growth was the increasing

availability of finance for car purchases. The number of

consumers who bought cars with borrowed funds increased

from 66 to 80 percent. Non-banking financial institutions

became important participants in enabling this growth. A

major cause of the slowdown of sales in 2019-20 was the

difficulty in the availability of finance due to problems in the

financial sector. The decade saw the introduction and

acceptance of shared platform operators like Uber and Ola.

The emerging young car buyer often preferred not to buy a

car so that he could enjoy many other experiences that were

now available.

Diesel car sales had risen earlier in the decade, but are now

in decline. Meeting Bharat VI norms has added considerably

to cost. In addition, the Supreme Court ordered that diesel

cars older than 10 years would not be allowed in the NCR.

In other cases, where a percentage tax was prescribed, the

rate was increased. As car prices increased, the amount of

road tax went up. Slowing of growth is related to many

customers not being able to afford the higher costs of

acquisition.

121. What were the impetus for the decline of the sales

growth in car industry at the end of the decade?

(a) Financial sector of the country was struggling.

(b) Launch of shared platform operators such as

OLA and Uber.

BHARAT VI.

(d) Restriction of Diesel cars older than 10 years in

the NCR region

(e) All of these

122. According to the author, what were the reasons that

can quote the similarities between the car industry of

India and a developed nation?

(I) Commencement of shared platform operators

like Uber and Ola.

(II) Existing models were ameliorated and

introduced in short interludes.

(III) alleviation in fuel consumption led to the

depletion of CO2 particulate matter.

(a) Only (I) (b) Both (I) and (III)

(e) None of these.

123. Which of the following phrase can be used to fill the

blank (A)?

(a) acceleration in the sales growth

(b) leading to switching to alternatives

(d) amplifying the CO2 emissions

(e) None of these.

124. Which of the following statements is FALSE with

reference to the passage?

(I) Bharat VI is an emission standard that brings

changes in the Indian automobile industry in

terms of pollutant emissions.

(II) Imports have increased due to the admittance of

foreign companies in Indian economy

(III) Domestic sales in automobile industry declined

at the end of the decade.

(a) Both (I) and (III) (b) only (II)

(e) None of these.

125. According to the passage, choose the most suitable

word that reflects the synonym of the highlighted

word.

DRIVER

(a) straphanger (b) catalyst (c) prototype

(d) chauffer (e) None of these.

Directions (126-130): In each of the questions given

below, a situation has been stated. Answer the question,

based on the paragraph.

126. ‘X’ is a longtime employee true to the company and

respected, maybe even revered, by the workforce. But

he just does not seem to be supportive of the

company’s lean initiative. Even worse, ‘X’ is beginning

to negatively influence some employees. ‘X’ is

about company’s lean initiative?

(a) empathetic (b) scientific (c) passionate

(d) pessimistic (e) discreet

127. ‘Y’ was a manager at hotel. After his retirement he

started his own food outlet in a small town and gained

success. Later, due to some construction plans of

government, ‘Y’ has to close down his business in the

area. He again purchases the land in another area,

starts his business and works for the success of his

restaurant, day and night. ‘Y’ is a person?

(a) hardworking (b) persevering (c) diligent

(d) enthusiastic (e) all of the above

128. Two goats came face to face while crossing a narrow

bridge.“Let me pass”, said one of them.“Never, you get

out of my way”, said the other goat. They quarrel each

other and lost their balance. They fell into the stream

down below and died! Both the goats were

(a) intuitive (b) stubborn (c) persuasive

(d) epicurean (e) all of the above

129. Today, at the animal shelter where I volunteer, a little

boy and his mom, who had adopted a kitten last week,

came into our lobby carrying big bags full of food, toys,

blankets, and other supplies we desperately need. The

boy’s mom said, ‘Today is his birthday. Instead of

birthday presents, he asked his dad and me to help

donate to the shelter. The boy was .

(a) dramatic (b) creative (c) courageous

(d) generous (e) none of the above

130. Bob decided to try his skates, for he had received a pair

of shiny new ones for Christmas. His dog, Spot, went

with him. When Bob reached the pond, he did not stop

to test the ice. He was having a delightful time when

suddenly Spot began to bark, for his keen ears had

caught the sound of cracking ice. Bob did not heed him,

but kept on skating. Suddenly the ice gave way. Spot

dashed to the place where his little master had

disappeared and with some difficulty succeeded in

pulling him out. Spot was a dog.

(a) honest (b) faithful (c) leader

(d) cultured (e) notorious

Directions (131-135): Read the passage given below and

answer the questions based on the information provided in

the passage. Certain words have been highlighted to aid in

answering the questions.

The shooting down of a passenger plane by Iran’s military

on Wednesday, a few hours after it launched missile attacks

on U.S. troops in Iraq, is the most tragic outcome of the

recent spike in U.S.-Iran tensions. The Ukrainian jet with

176 aboard was hit by an Iranian surface-to-air missile

shortly after it took off from Tehran’s Imam Khomeini

Airport. After initially rejecting western assertion that an

Iranian missile brought down the plane, Tehran on Saturday

said one of its soldiers fired the missile, mistaking the jet for

an enemy aircraft “as it turned to a sensitive area”. This is

not the first time U.S.-Iran tensions have led to an aviation

disaster. In 1988, in the last stage of the Iran-Iraq war, a U.S.

Navy warship shot down an Iran Air flight over the Gulf,

killing all 290 passengers. Then the U.S. troops said they

mistook the plane for a military aircraft that was going to

attack the ship. Iran says the same today. In both incidents,

innocents, who did not have anything to do with the conflict,

became victims.

This time it was U.S. President Donald Trump’s reckless

decision to assassinate Soleimani that pushed

both____(A) _. After launching missiles at U.S. troops in

Iraq in retaliation for the General’s killing, Iran’s missile

defence systems were on high alert, anticipating

retaliatory American air strikes. Iran blames “human

error” for the attack on the passenger plane. But whatever

the context is, it cannot abdicate responsibility for what

happened. Ukraine International Airlines says the flight

took off after clearance from the airport. The airline also

rejects the Iranian military’s claim that the plane veered off

its route. Iran’s admission and apology is a step in the right

direction. But it should carry out, along with international

investigators, a thorough probe into what led to the

“accident”, and punish whoever is responsible for the

“human error”. Such mistakes are unacceptable even in war.

Iran should have put in place the highest safety measures

and followed international protocols while preparing itself

for enemy retaliation. Clearly it did not do so. And innocent

people paid a price for Iran’s mistake. Both Iran and the U.S.

should also ask themselves whether the confrontational

path they have chosen since Mr. Trump unilaterally pulled

the U.S. out of the Iran nuclear deal, in May 2018, was worth

the risk. Both countries were on the brink of an all-out war

early this week. At least 226 people, mostly Iranians, have

already lost their lives in tragedies related to the Soleimani

killing (over 50 were killed in a stampede at the funeral). If

Iran is sincere in its apology, it should not only unearth what

happened and punish the culprits but also take immediate

steps to reduce tensions with the U.S.

31. What are the steps that Iran can take in order to bring

justice to the victims of the Plane crash?

(a) Wage a full-fledged war against the Americans

and eliminate the attackers of Soleimani.

(b) Prevent any plane from entering the airspace of

Iran to disrupt the aviation network worldwide.

financially and show the world the might of Iran.

(d) Enable a thorough investigation to unravel the

sequence of events which led to the tragic crash

in order to punish the guilty as well as de-

escalate with America to prevent such future

events.

(e) (d) and (c)

132. Which of the following phrase could fit in the blank

(A), to make the statement grammatically correct and

contextually meaningful?

(a) to rethink whether their capability to educate

people was lacking.

(b) countries to have an all-time high cooperation in

the fields of military and technology,

(d) to make friends with Iran to win the military

games being organized this year.

(e) None of the above

133. What was the reason given by the Iranian government

for the accidental shooting down of the civilian

aircraft?

(a) The plane had an American flag painted on its

wing causing the soldiers to think it was an

enemy plane.

(b) The plane had strayed into a sensitive zone

prompting the attack which resulted in the

devastating accident

the Tehran’s Imam Khomeini Airport and was

declared a threat to national security.

(d) There was an intelligence input regarding the

presence of Americas top general being present

in the plane and the attack was a way to kill him

(e) (b)& (d)

134. Which of the following word is similar to retaliatory

as mentioned in the passage given above?

(a) redemption (b)vengeance (c)brisk

(d) hostility (e) None of the above

135. Which of the statements true in the options given

below with respect to the passage?

(a) Iran took onus of the accident as soon as the

news started to do rounds in the media.

(b) The aircraft was shot down without human

intervention as Iran had activated emergency

wartime protocols.

nuclear deal without consulting Iran.

(d) It is the for the first time that such a kind of

aviation disaster has taken place in Iran.

(e) None of the above

Directions (136-140): Read the passage carefully and

answer the questions based on the passage.

2010 was an exciting year for ecommerce. Among other

innovations, smartphones and tablets started

________(A) ________and, in no time, these devices became the

de facto choice for people to make online purchases,

inspiring a flurry of technological developments. This set

the tone for a decade in which online retail exploded. (B)

This was the phase during which we (1) estimated

BigBasket, in 2011, at a time the (2) launched worth of the

(3) ecommerce market in India was (4) pegged at $6.3

billion. By 2017, it grew to $38.5 billion and, by 2026, it is

projected to touch $200 billion. (C) As we step into the new

decade, here’s my take on some definitive trends that will

shape the Indian retail sector in the next few years, and pave

the way for this growth.

For a country with the second-highest base of internet users

in the world, India surprisingly falls behind when it comes

to the percentage of people who shop online. Today,

________________(D)___________________ in India shop online

while the remaining prefer to use the internet only for

product research, communication, entertainment and other

purposes. What this means is that retailers are sitting on a

(E)habitable goldmine of potential customers and have the

opportunity to tap into over $50 million worth of

ecommerce transactions, driven by over 500 million first-

timers to the internet and online shopping; a majority of

these users are from ‘Bharat’, the India of small towns and

rural areas. According to a Google-AT Kearney report, by the

end of next year, there would be around 175 million online

shoppers in India.

36. Which of the following words given in the options

should come at the place marked as (A) in the above

passage to make it grammatically correct and

meaningful? Also, the word should fill in the two

sentences given below to make them contextually

correct and meaningful.

(I) As the tumour grows, cells towards its centre,

being deprived of vital nutrients, cease

and become quiescent.

(II) This obsession with food choice often leads

people to cut out the wrong ones, the

continuation of new diets.

(a) affiliating (b) proliferating (c) enriching

(d) alleviating (e) None of these

137. The sentence given in (B) has four words given in bold.

Amongst the given bold words which of the followings

must interchange to make the sentence grammatically

and contextually correct and meaningful?

(a) 1-2 (b) 2-3 (c) 2-4

(d) 3-4 (e) None of these.

138. In the above passage, a sentence (C) is given in Italics.

There may or may not be an error in one part of the

sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as

your answer. If there is no error, then choose option

(e) as your answer.

(a) As we step into the new decade,

(b) here’s my take on some definitive trends that will

shape

years,

(d) and pave the way for this growth.

(e) No error

139. Choose the most suitable phrase for blank (D)to make

the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

(a) ecommercemarket is being driven by electronics

(b) India’s retail universe and the motto will be

embracing

(d) just 10 percent of the 500 million active internet

users

(e) None of these

140. A word is given in bold in (E). Choose the word which

should replace the word given in bold to make the

sentence correct and meaningful. If no change is

required, choose option (e) as your answer.

(a) virtual (b) ablaze (c) abrasive

(d) veritable (e) No change required

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